CCNA Module2 Chapter 5 Discovery 4.0

1. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# enable
• Router(config-if)# no down
• Router(config-if)# s0 active
• Router(config-if)# interface up
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown

2.

Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• virtual terminal only
• enable mode only
• console and virtual terminal only
• enable mode and virtual terminal
• only the service password
• all configured passwords

3. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• global configuration mode
• setup mode
• ROM monitor mode
• user EXEC mode

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber
• blinks rapidly green
• steady amber
• steady green

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config
• router# show startup-config
• router# show flash
• router# show version

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-N
• Up Arrow
• Right Arrow
• Down Arrow

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A

11.

Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
• Telnet to the switch from the router console.
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
• The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• IP unnumbered
• No IP address
• HDLC encapsulation
• Frame Relay encapsulation
• PPP encapsulation

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• DHCP options
• domain name
• interface IP addresses
• enable secret password
• DNS server IP addresses

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.
• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• domain name
• DHCP address pool
• DNS server IP address

16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC
• PAP
• PPP

17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• AUX
• Telnet
• modem

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• routing protocol
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID
• IP addresses of all interfaces
• enable mode password

20.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file
• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
• The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
• The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• All router commands are available.
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
• Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
• SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
• SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

CCNA Module 2 Chapter 1 Discovery 4.0

1
Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source 
whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network 
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond


2
Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer
once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords
and other account information?
help desk 
customer service
network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning


3
What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used
by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
metro Ethernet 
T1 
T3


4
Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
echo request issued by source 
echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination


5
Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone 
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas


6
At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network
to obtain Internet access?
 at a POP 
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet


7
What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network 
the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks


8
Which network support services team is responsible for testing
a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
customer service
help desk
network operations  
on-site installation


9
Which network support services team identifies whether
the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
customer service
help desk
network operations
planning and provisioning 


10
What was the original purpose of the Internet?
voice communication
marketing
research 
commerce


11
What is the purpose of an RFC?
to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
to document the development and approval of an Internet standard 
to connect a business to an ISP
to provide data communication services to ISP customers
to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients


12
Which command generated this output?
1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec

Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4 
Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
Router# ping 34.0.0.4
Router# telnet 34.0.0.4


13
Which network utility helps determine the
location of network problems and identifies
routers that packets travel across?
ping
ipconfig
traceroute 
ixp


14
What interconnects the Internet backbone?
gateway routers
 IXPs 
POPs
satellite dishes


15
What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
 modularity 
low maintenance requirements
low cost

16
The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the
company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock
controlled access, redundant power, and
high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
 equipment colocation 
Tier 1 ISP services


17
When did the Internet become available for use by
businesses and consumers?
1979
1984
 1991 
1999
2000



18
What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second 
packets per second


19
What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
56 kbps
128 kbps
 1.544 Mbps 
2.4 Mbps


20
What three support service teams are commonly found
within an ISP? (Choose three.)
help desk 
computer support
application readiness
network operations center
planning and provisioning 
implementation and documentation

CCNA Module1 Chapter 5 Discovery 4.0

1)
How large are IPv4 addresses?
8 bits
16 bits
* 32 bits
64 bits
128 bits


2)
Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
The router interface does not have a default gateway.
The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
* The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

3)
Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
* host portion
only the fourth octet


4)
Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
* 172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0


5)
Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
* 255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.252


6)
How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
4
8
* 16
24


7)
How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
* 254
255
256
510
511
512


8)
Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
175.124
* 35.4
.4
124.35.4
175.124.35


9)
Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
* 10.1.1.1
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
* 172.16.4.4
* 192.168.5.5
224.6.6.6


10)
What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
* a specific host
a group of hosts
the default gateway
the network broadcast address


11)
What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
the MAC address of the sending host
the MAC address of the destination host
* an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

12)
Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
broadcast
simulcast
multicast
* unicast


13)
What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
MAC and IP addresses for the default router
IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
* MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host


14)
A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
* The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.


15)
Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
ARP
* DHCP
DNS
RARP


16)
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
* The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
* The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
* All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.


17)
Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
IP address of the destination host
public gateway IP address of the ISP
external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
* internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network


18)
Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
* solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location


19)
What is one of the purposes of NAT?
filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
* prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names


20)
Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
* Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
* Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.


21)
Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
* 10.0.0.17
128.107.1.2
192.135.250.0
209.165.201.1

CCNA Module1 Chapter 4 Discovery 4.0

1)
 Which definition describes the term Internet?
 a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
 a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
* a network of networks that connects countries around the world
a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization


2)
 What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
 between a client and a host
 between two local networks
 between a computer and a switch
* between an ISP and a home-based LAN


3)
 What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
 Internet LAN
 ISP backbone
 Internet gateways
 Internet providers
* Internet backbone


4)
Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
 hub
 bridge
 modem
 repeater
* ISR

5)
What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
* fast connections
* extra web space
free Windows upgrade
 cheapest cost available to all users
* additional e-mail accounts
replacement hardware at no cost


6)
 What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
 Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
 Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
* Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7)
  Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
* an IP address
file sharing enabled
* a network connection
server services enabled
* access to an Internet service provider
an address obtained directly from the RIR

8)
What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
 NOC
 ISP
* hop
segment

9)
 What does the tracert command test?
 NIC functionality
 the ISP bandwidth
* the network path to a destination
 the destination application functionality

10)
 What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
 analog technology
 cable modem technology
* digital subscriber line technology
wireless technology

11)
 Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
* to connect end users using cable technology
 to connect end users using analog technology
 to connect end users using wireless technology
 to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12)
Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
 STP
 UTP
 coax
* fiber

3)
Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
 STP
* UTP
coax
 fiber


14)
 Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
 between buildings
* in a home office network
 where EMI is an issue
 in a cable TV network
* inside a school building
 in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15)
 What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
 data security
 no loss of signal
 no electromagnetic interference
* reliable data communications


16)
Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
* crossover
eight coax channels
 multimode fiber
 single-mode fiber
 straight-through


17)
  What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
 ST
 BNC
 RJ-11
* RJ-45


18)
 Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
 uses RJ-11 jacks
* uses RJ-45 jacks
supports only data transmissions
* allows quick rearrangements of network connections
forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses


19)
 What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
 requires no preplanning
* aids in isolation of cabling problems
* protects cables from physical damage
provides compliance with future standards
 provides a short-term solution for cable installation


20)
 What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
 installing cables in conduit
* having improper termination
losing light over long distances
 installing low quality cable shielding
* using low quality cables or connectors


21)
 What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
* pinouts
* cable lengths
connector color
* connector types
cost per meter (foot)
 tensile strength of plastic insulator

CCNA Module1 Chapter 3 Discovery 4.0

1)
 Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
 flow control
* encapsulation
encoding
 multicasting
 access method


2)
Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
* H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
 H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
 H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
 H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3)
 Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
 adds complexity to networks
 encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
* provides consistent interconnections across networks
ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
* simplifies new product development

4)
 What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
 type of cable used
 type of data transmission
* speed of transmission
type of connector required
 maximum length of cable allowed


5)
 Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
 source IP address
 source MAC address
 destination IP address
* destination MAC address
source Ethernet address


6)
 Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
 logical addresses only
 IP addresses only
* MAC addresses only
broadcast addresses only

7)
What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
* detects transmission errors
 provides timing for transmission
 contains the start of frame delimiter
 indicates which protocol will receive the frame


8)
 What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
 They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
 They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
 They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
* They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.


9)
 Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
 modem
 switch
 router
* hub


10)
 Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
 router
* hub
* switch
 server
 computer


11)
 Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
* ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
 WINS


12)
 A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
 It drops the frame.
 It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
* It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
It returns the frame to the sender.


13)
 What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
 prevents collisions on a local network
* keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
controls which hosts have access to the network
 controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14)

Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
It sends the data packet as it was received.
* It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15)
Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
ARP table
* routing table
network table
forwarding table

16)
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
* The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

17)
What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
a server hosted by the ISP
* the router interface closest to the computer
a server managed by a central IT department
the switch interface that connects to the computer

18)
If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
dynamic route
* default route
destination route
default destination

19)
Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
* naming scheme
* IP addressing scheme
length of cable runs
physical location of networking devices
specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20)
An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
NIC
* switch
e-mail server
application server
* wireless access point

21)
What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
It enables the user to share printers.
* It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

CCNA Module 1 Chapter 2 Discovery 4.0

1)
An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
* clean install
upgrade
multi-boot
virtualization


2)
Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
* Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
* Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
 Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.


3)
Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
closest server
operating system
* IP address
* subnet mask
* default gateway
 network card driver


4)
Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
 partition
 file system
* computer name
* IP address
operating system


5)
Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
* CLI
GUI
 redirector
kernel translator


6)
What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
* full access to source code
* software often available free
structured development cycle
 can be expensive to purchase
 limits what end-user can do with code
* support normally user-based and often free



7)
 What is the purpose of a default gateway?
 physically connects a computer to a network
 provides a permanent address to a computer
 identifies the network to which a computer is connected
 identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
* identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks 


8)
 Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
* Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
* A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
 A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
 Each partition requires a different file system type.


9)
What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
 Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
 A network administrator enters information on each computer.
* Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.


10)
What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
* CLI
 OS
* GUI
NIC
 kernel


11)
Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
* required hard disk space
 type of accelerated graphics card
* recommended amount of RAM
printer requirements
* processor type and speed
 type of keyboard

CCNA Module3 Final Exam

1. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
• client
• server
• pruning
• transparent

2. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
• Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
• LCP tests the quality of the link.
• LCP manages compression on the link
• Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
• RB has the lowest priority value.
• RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
• RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
• RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP with CHAP authentication
• PPP with PAP authentication

7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
• VTP V2 mode is disabled.
• SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
• The number of existing VLANs does not match.
• The configuration revision number does not match.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
• A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
• Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
• Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
• Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• number of ports
• switch location
• switching speed
• base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

11.

What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
• feasible distance of the successor
• reported distance of the successor
• feasible distance of the feasible successor
• reported distance of the feasible successor

12.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
• R1
• R2
• R3
• ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
• faster communication with server farms
• stronger security against malicious attacks
• faster communication with Internet destinations
• enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
• R2: Fa0/0 inbound
• R1: S0/1/0 outbound
• R1: S0/0/1 inbound
• R2: S0/0/1 outbound
• R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.

Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
• C, B, A, D
• D, C, B, A
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
• A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
• Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
• Router B has a fully converged topology table.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
• RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
• Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
• RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
• RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
• RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
• The IP address is already in use.
• The technician is using a network address.
• The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
• The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
• A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
• A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
• The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
• The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
• The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
• The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
• The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
• no set loopback
• incorrect subnet mask on R2
• incompatible bandwidth
• incorrect IP address on R1
• incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
• to determine the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
• The key passes between routers in plain text.
• The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
• The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
• The key is never transmitted.
• The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
• Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
• No host can reach any other host.
• Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
• All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
• Router(config-router)# null 0 route
• Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
• Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
• There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
• There is a network statement missing.
• Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.
• The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
• /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
• 192.168.13.4/30
• 192.168.13.5/30
• 192.168.13.7/30
• 192.168.13.58/30
• 192.168.13.61/27
• 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
• define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
• add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic
• deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
• connect remote locations directly to the intranet
• configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
• deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
• It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
• The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
• The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
• It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
• TCP
• UDP
• PPP
• HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
• access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
• access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
• to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
• to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
• provides segmentation of broadcast domains
• allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
• allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
• prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
• 10.200.11.69
• 10.200.16.1
• 10.200.0.255
• 10.201.0.55
• 10.200.15.240
• 10.200.30.29

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
• All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
• Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

38.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.

Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
• The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
• The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
• The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
• 0.0.0.0 5
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 0.0.31.255
• 255.255.255.240
• 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
• leased line
• cell switched
• circuit switched
• packet switched

42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
• 192.168.0.0/22
• 192.168.0.0/23
• 192.168.0.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/25

43.

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
• R1
• R2
• R3
• R4

44.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
• A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
• The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
• Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
• The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.
• The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

45.

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
• All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
• The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
• The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
• The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
• RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
• RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.

Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
• The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
• The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
• This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
• The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

48.

Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
• 192.168.1.0/22
• 192.168.4.0/21
• 192.168.6.0/23
• 192.168.8.0/21
• 192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
• It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
• It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
• Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
• The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
• Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

50.

Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
• VTP version mismatch
• VTP domain name mismatch
• VTP revision number mismatch
• Time synchronization problems

51.

Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

52.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
• It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
• It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• Static routes are more secure.
• Static routes converge faster.
• Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
• The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
• They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
• allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
• configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
• implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
• associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
• manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
• Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
• Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
• By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
• Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
• By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
• RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
• VPN
• NCP
• TDM
• STP
• STDM

57.

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
• a child route that is defined
• a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
• a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
• the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
• prior to link establishment
• during the link establishment phase
• before the network layer protocol configuration begins
• after the network layer protocol configuration has ended